Player utg+1 goes all in in a cash game for €60 after the flop, 3folds Call €60 3folds BB all in €220
middle player says can we run it twice, BB says 3 times, mid agrees and calls .
floor announces that the main pot can only be run once and they carry on.
My question is : Isnt this completly unfair to the player who moved allin in the first place as he now has to beat two hands both of which has a chance not only to take the main pot but to get their stacks back if they split the side pot ?
Secondly having allowed it, after the 3rd run the side was split 50/50 as BB won the first but lost the second and won the 3rd but was deemed to be one all with the mid player for the side pot as the first run was exclusively for the main pot ?
middle player says can we run it twice, BB says 3 times, mid agrees and calls .
floor announces that the main pot can only be run once and they carry on.
My question is : Isnt this completly unfair to the player who moved allin in the first place as he now has to beat two hands both of which has a chance not only to take the main pot but to get their stacks back if they split the side pot ?
Secondly having allowed it, after the 3rd run the side was split 50/50 as BB won the first but lost the second and won the 3rd but was deemed to be one all with the mid player for the side pot as the first run was exclusively for the main pot ?
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