just goin thru some of my losing hands at 20plo and noticed a hand where i iso-ed to get heads up allin with a 93/32
my hand was AcKc2c8s
his hand was Ks7cJsTc
i thought great i have best hand and we have dead money trapped so +++EV but......
when i checked HH in HEM it says villain was 55% pre (me 45% obv)
is this correct and can anyone explain how this can be? Is it solely becuase of his straight possibilities value. I mean i have his high card dominated and his flush draw dominated.
Am i missing something or where is the flaw in my thinking (assuming HEM is correct)
tnx in adv
my hand was AcKc2c8s
his hand was Ks7cJsTc
i thought great i have best hand and we have dead money trapped so +++EV but......
when i checked HH in HEM it says villain was 55% pre (me 45% obv)
is this correct and can anyone explain how this can be? Is it solely becuase of his straight possibilities value. I mean i have his high card dominated and his flush draw dominated.
Am i missing something or where is the flaw in my thinking (assuming HEM is correct)
tnx in adv
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