6 handed live €1-€2. I have €150, villain easily covers.
Villain is very good PLO player I think. He is well in profit and has been frequently (re-) raising pre... maybe in a gambling mood...
UTG raises 3 to 5 (pot 8)
Villain in late position reraises pot to 18 (26)
I am in BB with AQQTss and I pot it again to 60 (84) (??)
UTG folds
Villain goes all in for another 90 on top (in fact he has >> this but it puts me all in)
Now I know he very likely has AA here but I am getting 7/3 so I have to call if I am over 30% to win (I checked later and I am > 30% even against AAKKss)
So, the mistake I made here was the 4 bet? Should I have just called pre-flop? If so, what then?
Why - stack size? pot size?
Is this just a feature of PLO due to the closeness of hands pre-flop or is there something fundamentally wrong with the way I played the hand?
Villain is very good PLO player I think. He is well in profit and has been frequently (re-) raising pre... maybe in a gambling mood...
UTG raises 3 to 5 (pot 8)
Villain in late position reraises pot to 18 (26)
I am in BB with AQQTss and I pot it again to 60 (84) (??)
UTG folds
Villain goes all in for another 90 on top (in fact he has >> this but it puts me all in)
Now I know he very likely has AA here but I am getting 7/3 so I have to call if I am over 30% to win (I checked later and I am > 30% even against AAKKss)
So, the mistake I made here was the 4 bet? Should I have just called pre-flop? If so, what then?
Why - stack size? pot size?
Is this just a feature of PLO due to the closeness of hands pre-flop or is there something fundamentally wrong with the way I played the hand?
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