Just playing in the emop main this weekend when this hand came up. Guy loose most of his stack in a flip and shoves the next hand for 1600 the blinds are 500-1k, chap next to him raises to 2,500.
What is the correct ruling on this? Is he allowed raise to 2,500 after a 1,600 all in before him?
My argument was no, soley because even tho raises preflop only have to be double the previous raise not the bet, if the raise here is only 900 which is less than the current big blind, should the min bet of 1k cause blinds are 500-1k stand and therefore his 900 raise should not be allowed?
Hope that is clear enough guys . Twice I was told that what I thought was wrong by a dealer and then one of the floor staff, floor staff said his raise could be as low as 2,200 which is a raise of 600... Surely not with the min bet rule?
Be great to get clarification on this. Cheers
What is the correct ruling on this? Is he allowed raise to 2,500 after a 1,600 all in before him?
My argument was no, soley because even tho raises preflop only have to be double the previous raise not the bet, if the raise here is only 900 which is less than the current big blind, should the min bet of 1k cause blinds are 500-1k stand and therefore his 900 raise should not be allowed?
Hope that is clear enough guys . Twice I was told that what I thought was wrong by a dealer and then one of the floor staff, floor staff said his raise could be as low as 2,200 which is a raise of 600... Surely not with the min bet rule?
Be great to get clarification on this. Cheers
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