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    Need Some help with a ruling

    I was playing in a pub game last night and the following happened.

    4 people in the hand and after the flop it was noticed that one person had not given their cards back from the previous hand. There had already been a bet and a call on the flop with two people left to act.

    Is the hand dead and all money given back or is there some other ruling?

    Does it depend on how much action has taken place?

    #2
    Originally posted by derek2222_ie View Post
    I was playing in a pub game last night and the following happened.

    4 people in the hand and after the flop it was noticed that one person had not given their cards back from the previous hand. There had already been a bet and a call on the flop with two people left to act.

    Is the hand dead and all money given back or is there some other ruling?

    Does it depend on how much action has taken place?
    The hand is 100% DEAD and all money/chips etc is given back regardless of what cards players may have got.....

    Comment


      #3
      Originally posted by Fitzy2010 View Post
      The hand is 100% DEAD and all money/chips etc is given back regardless of what cards players may have got.....
      You sure? If theres been significant action the hand may be allowed to play out involving the raiser and caller....

      Comment


        #4
        interesting one. If significant action has taken place maybe declaring the cards from the previous hand dead and revealing them might be considered an ok option.

        This provides problems though as Im sure the player would not like his winning cards from the previous hand be revealed.

        Comment


          #5
          In the start of a hand of poker for it to be deemed "eligible" there must be 52 cards in the deck from the deal....
          I have actually read this somewhere before, therefore regardless how much action went on the hand would be deemed dead!
          The only way it wouldn't be deemed dead is if the person that made the mistake said nothing about his cards from previous hand or if it wasnt noticed(which is highly unlikely)!

          Comment


            #6
            Don't think this is right, if theres significant action i think it takes preference. And have a raiser and caller post flop has to be deemed significant action!

            Comment


              #7
              Originally posted by tglynn View Post
              Don't think this is right, if theres significant action i think it takes preference. And have a raiser and caller post flop has to be deemed significant action!
              Whilst i acknowledge there's always a possibility you may be right I'd strongly disagree with you on this....
              Picture this scenario....
              if i have pocket QQ and im betting it out with some other lad and am on the verge of losing the hand, then suddenly some DONK realises he still had cards from last hand and they happened to be say KQ...
              Id have to call the tournament director and get a ruling which im pretty sure would go my way and the hand would be dead....

              Comment


                #8
                not 100% by any means but don thtink the significant action rule applies here & the hand is dead imo

                had somethink kind of similar in UKIPT, there hadn't been a flop, but raise and maybe a call, pre and the hand was declared dead when 2 cards previous hand were noticed...

                Comment


                  #9
                  Your queens would be winning

                  Comment


                    #10
                    We need someone like JP to give us a clear ruling on this one. Interesting one for sure.
                    NextStopWhoKnows

                    Comment


                      #11
                      If there has been action the hand continues, only if it was a cashgame.

                      I'd declare misdeal if it was tournament.
                      ﴾͡๏̯͡๏﴿

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